I read the following:
An argument is deductively valid iff it is impossible for all of the premises to be true and the conclusion false.
Definitions like these strike me as describing what something CANNOT BE rather than telling me WHAT SOMETHING IS. Is it correct to understand that a definition structured like this is effectively "exempting" something explicit while "tolerating" anything else?
For example, based on my understanding of this definition, the following pairs are all "deductively valid":
- (all false premises, false conclusion)
- (some false premises, false conclusion)
- (all false premises, true conclusion)
- (some false premises, true conclusion)
The only pair that is NOT deductively valid is:
- (all true premises, false conclusion)
Is that correct?
Yes, exactly.
Actually, none of your four cases need be deductively valid. For example, referring to the real numbers, the argument $$\forall x \forall y\; x=y;\;\text{therefore, }\;3≠3$$ has a false premise and a false conclusion, but is nonetheless invalid. This is because it is not impossible for the all of the premises to be true and the conclusion false: we just have to restrict the universe to $\{3\}.$
Compare the quoted definition
with this wrong definition:
Here, “it is impossible” particularly doesn't just mean “it is not the case”; the former refers to verifying that <premises are all true, conclusion is false> applies to no possible interpretation/context.