The intuitive definition for $\lim\limits_{x \to a} f(x) = L$ is the value of $f ( x )$ can be made arbitrarily close to $L$ by making $x$ sufficiently close, but not equal to, $a$ . I can easily understand this ,but for the (ε, δ)-definition of limit:For every real ε > 0, there exists a real δ > 0 such that for all real x, 0 < | x − a | < δ implies | f(x) − L | < ε. Oh, god, I cannot understand it completely.
As it is the formal definition of limit, I think it should be precise but somewhat should include the mean of the above intuitive definition, so as for "$f ( x )$ can be made arbitrarily close to $L$" in the intuitive definition correspond to “For every real ε > 0,| f(x) − L | < ε” in the formal definition, it's fine! but does “making $x$ sufficiently close, but not equal to, $a$ .” correspond to “there exists a real δ > 0 such that for all real x, 0 < | x − a | < δ” ? This is the point I cannot understand, because I am not sure if “there exists a real δ > 0 such that for all real x, 0 < | x − a | < δ” shows "x close enough, but not equal, to $a$".
The other question is: does the biggest δ also get smaller as ε is getting smaller? Why? (Exclude the case when f(x) is a constant function.)
Why do we need the formal definition of a limit? Does the intuitive definition have some flaw?
P.S. Thank you everyone, but I must declare I only have some basic knowledge of limit, I only started to learn calculus a few days ago.
The rationale behind the concept of limit is exception handling: We have a function $f:\>\Omega\to {\mathbb R}$ defined on some set $\Omega$, and we are given a "place" $a$ which belongs to $\Omega$, or at least is "adherent" to $\Omega$. Therefore the function $f$ may or may not be defined at $a$. But we observe (e.g., by letting Mathematica draw the graph of $f$) that "when $x$ is near $a$ then $f(x)$ is near a particular value $\eta$". If that is the case we'd like to tell this to other people by writing $\lim_{x\to a} f(x)=\eta$.
Now we need a formal definition for such a fact. Under what circumstances would a value $\eta$ qualify as limit of $f(x)$ when $x\to a$? The answer is simple: If defining $$f(a):=\eta\tag{1}$$ (resp. overriding the given definition of $f(a)$ by $(1)$) would make $f$ continuous at $a$.
Now appeal to the definition of continuity: A function is continuous at $a$, if, given any tolerance $\epsilon>0$ we can guarantee $|f(x)-f(a)|<\epsilon$ by choosing $|x-a|$ "sufficiently small", i.e., smaller than a certain allowance $\delta>0$, which will depend on the given tolerance $\epsilon$.