I've been reading through Folland's section on outer measures and premeasures, and I really want to understand the bigger picture as I feel as if though I'm losing sight of the bigger picture. My main problem is with Theorem 1.14 and its proof but first I introduce some important concepts with my questions on them.
1.11 Carathéodory's Theorem: If $\mu^*$ is an outer measure on X, the collection $M$ of $\mu^*$ measurable sets is a $\sigma$ algebra, and the restriction of $\mu^*$ to $M$ is a complete measure.
$\textbf{My questions: Does this mean on M, $\mu^*$ is countably additive}$ $\textbf{so that it is indeed a measure?}$ $\textbf{Are all subsets of null sets also contained in M, to be complete?}$ $\textbf{Folland to prove completeness shows that if $\mu^{*}(A)=0,\mbox{then A $\in$ M}$, but}$ $\textbf{shouldn't he show that subsets of null sets are contained in M, not just that null sets are}$ $\textbf{are contained in M?}$ This is what he does:
1.13: If $\mu_0$ is a premeasure on $A \subset P(X)$, where $A$ is an algebra and $u^*$ is defined by: $u^{*}(E)=\mbox{inf}${$\sum \limits_{1}^{\infty} \mu_0(A_j): A_j\in A, E \subset \bigcup\limits_{i=1}^{\infty}A_j $}, then:
a. $\mu^{*}|_A=\mu_0$
b. every set in $A$ is $\mu^{*}$ measurable.
Does 1.13a just simply mean mean that on A for E $\subset A,u^*{E}=\mu_0(E)$?
Theorem 1.14: Let $A \subset P(X)$ be an algebra, $\mu_0$ a premeasure on $A$, and $M$, the $\sigma-algebra$ generated by $A$. There exists a measure $\mu$ on $M$ whose restriction to $A$ is $\mu_0$-namely,$\mu|_M=\mu^{*}$, where $\mu^{*}$ is given by
$u^{*}(E)=\mbox{inf}${$\sum \limits_{1}^{\infty} \mu_0(A_j): A_j\in A, E \subset \bigcup\limits_{i=1}^{\infty}A_j $}. If $\upsilon$ is another measure on $M$ that extends $u_0$, then $\upsilon \leq \mu(E)$ for all $E \in M$, with equality when $\mu(E)<\infty$. If $\mu_0$ is $\sigma-finite$, then $\mu$ is the unique extension of $\mu_0$ to a measure on $M$.
Image of proof: 
$\textbf{My questions: Does this mean on M, $\mu(E)=\mu^{*}(E)$ for $E \subset M$?}$ $\textbf{My questions: Does this mean on A, $\mu(E)=\mu_0(E)=\mu^{*}(E)$ for $E \subset A$?}$
$\textbf{Does $\upsilon$, (a measure on M), "extending" $\mu_0$ mean that the restriction of $\upsilon$ to A is $ \mu_0$ }$? Folland never explicitly defines extension so I'm not sure what it means.
$\textbf{Finally, I'm not sure why in the proof why that $\upsilon(E) \leq \sum \limits_{1}^{\infty} \mu_0(A_j) $}$, in the screenshot above implies that $\upsilon(E) \leq \mu(E)$ Where does this fact come from?
Sorry for all the questions, I just want to really understand everything. Thank you.

Your questions: