Understanding the possibility of well orderings of uncountable sets

72 Views Asked by At

I'm trying to figure out where I'm going wrong with the following proof that all sets which have a well-ordering must be countable. At the heart of it is that every element in a well-ordered set has a unique predecessor (except the minimum element of the set) and a unique successor.

Below let $(\mathbb{N},\leq)$ be linear order on $\mathbb{N}$ and $(X,\preceq)$ be an infinite well-ordered set. Define the sequence $(a_n)_{n\in\mathbb{N}}$ as follows: $$a_1 := \min X \\ a_{n+1} := \text{the successor of } a_n \in (X,\preceq)$$

Claim: For each $x \in X$ there exists a unique $n$ such that $x = a_n$. Thus $X$ is countable. Proof:

  1. Uniqueness follows from the $a_n$ being a sequence of successors so no two are equal to each other. For existence, proof by contradiction. Suppose there exists an element $c\in X$ such that $c\neq a_n$ for any $n \in \mathbb{N}$.
  2. Since $X$ is well-ordered by $\preceq$ either (Case A): There exist $i,j\in\mathbb{N}$ such that $a_i\preceq c\preceq{a_j}$ or (Case B): $a_n \prec c \; \forall n\in\mathbb{N}$. Assume Case A first:
  3. Since each of the $a_i$ is the predecessor of $a_{i+1}$ and $j$ is finite, there are only finitely many $x$ such that $a_i\preceq x \preceq{a_j}$ (i.e. if $a_k\preceq x\preceq a_{k+1}$ then by the construction of $(a_n)$, either $x=a_k$ or $x=a_{k+1}$). Furthermore, each of these $x$ must be an $a_k$ for some $k,\; i\leq k\leq j$ because the construction of $(a_n)$ includes the whole sequence of successors $a_{i+1},\ldots, a_j$. Thus, we must have $c=a_k$ for some $i\leq k\leq j$, a contradiction.
  4. (Case B). Let $S:=\{ x\;|\; a_n \prec x, \; \forall n\in\mathbb{N} \}$. Without loss of generality let $c := \min S$
  5. Let $b$ be the predecessor of $c$. Then $b\notin S$ so by the definition of $S$ there exists an $m$ such that $b = a_m$. Then we must have $c=a_{m+1}$, a contradiction.

I've looked it over a few times already and can't find anything. Thanks.

1

There are 1 best solutions below

4
On BEST ANSWER

The ordinal $\omega+1 = \{0,1,2,3,\ldots, \omega\}$ is a well-ordered set in which the element $\omega$ (the maximum) does not have a direct predecessor. So your basic assumptions are wrong from the start... Your procedure does not go beyond $\omega$, but limit ordinals exist.