The following excerpt is from Stewart Calculus: Early Transcendentals, 7th Edition.
My question is how does the author arrive at:
$$\lim_{h \to 0}\frac{a^h-1}{h}=f'(0)$$
The following excerpt is from Stewart Calculus: Early Transcendentals, 7th Edition.
My question is how does the author arrive at:
$$\lim_{h \to 0}\frac{a^h-1}{h}=f'(0)$$
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As per the author's work, we have:
$$f'(x) = a^{x} \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{a^h - 1}{a}$$
Replacing $x = 0$ in the above expression yields:
$$f'(0) = a^0 \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{a^h - 1}{a} = \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{a^h - 1}{a}$$
as desired.