I was perusing an answer to this question here, but I'm confused regarding the last line
$0 = \lim_{x \to x0} \frac{\sum_{k=0}^{n} a_k (x - x_0)^k}{(x - x_0)^n}$
this implies that $a_0 = a_1 = ... = a_n = 0$. I'm not sure why it implies that the coefficients are equal to zero. I do see that the limit of the numerator must be zero, but that would only imply the first coefficient $a_0$ (when $k = 0$ ) must be zero, but for $k > 0 $, why do the coefficients have to be zero? My understanding is that as $x \to x_0$, $(x - x_0) \to 0$, then the coefficients can be any value?
It may be easiest to pretend that $n = 1$ for a moment. Then the limit is $$ \frac{a_0}{(x - x_0)} + a_1.$$As $x \to x_0$, the denominator in the first term blows up, so that if $a_0 \neq 0$ then there is no limit at all. So $a_0 = 0$. The last term is independent of $x$. But as we know the limit is $0$, we find that $a_1$ must also be zero.
It's the same basic reasoning for longer expansions: each denominator would blow up in the limit, forcing the corresponding numerators to be $0$; and thus the constant must also be $0$.