Consider an ordered set of five points $\{p_1, p_2, \dots, p_5\}$ in linear general position in $\mathbb{CP}^3$ and another ordered set of five points $\{q_1, q_2, \dots, q_5\}$, also in linear general position in $\mathbb{CP}^3$. These two sets are of course projectively equivalent, but is there a unique projective transformation that will map $p_i$ to $q_i$?
I seem to have an argument for it by translating the problem to mapping ordered sets of 1-dimensional subspaces in $\mathbb{C}^4$. However, I wish to confirm the result, just in case I may be making some mistake.
Thank you.
Indeed there is a theorem which say:
So for $p_1, \dots, p_5 \in \mathbb{CP}^3$ and $q_1, \dots, q_5 \in \mathbb{CP}^3$ which are in general positions, resp. There exists a unique projective transformation $f \colon \mathbb{CP}^3 \to \mathbb{CP}^3$ such that $f(p_i) = q_i$ for $i= 1,\dots,5$.