My professor gave the following definition in class for uniform convergence:
$(f_{n}: A \subset \mathbb{R}^{k} \rightarrow \mathbb{R}^{l})_{n=1}^{\infty}$ converges uniformly to $f$ on $A$ if and only if $\forall \epsilon >0 \exists N \in \mathbb{N}\backslash \{0 \}$ such that $n \geq N \Rightarrow \lvert f_{n}(x) - f(x) \rvert < \epsilon \forall x \in A$.
I don't understand what the $f(x)$ is in this definition. That is, say I have $f_{n}(x) = \frac{sin(x)}{n}$. My understanding is I need to show $\lvert \frac{sin(x)}{n} - f(x) \rvert < \epsilon$. What is the $n$ value for $f(x)$? Am I using $f_{1}(x)= sin(x)$?
The important part of the definition is that $N$ is independent of $x$. This is what makes the convergence uniform.
The limit function is $f(x)=0$, as mentioned above. So for any $\epsilon>0$, $\vert f_n(x) -f(x)\vert = \vert \sin x / n \vert \le 1/n < \epsilon \Rightarrow N\ge 1/\epsilon$. And since $N$ is independent of $x$, $f_n$ converges uniformly.