This is ex. 14.2.7. from Terence Tao's Analysis II book.
Let $I:=[a,b]$ be an interval and $f_n:I \rightarrow \mathbb R$ differentiable functions with $f_n'$ converges uniform to a function $g:I \rightarrow \mathbb R$. Suppose $\exists x_0 \in I: \lim \limits_{n \rightarrow \infty} f_n(x_0) = L \in \mathbb R$. Then the $f_n$ converge uniformly to a differentiable function $f:I \rightarrow \mathbb R$ with $f' = g$.
We are not given that the $f_n'$ are continuous but he gives the hint that $$ d_{\infty}(f_n',f_m') \leq \epsilon \Rightarrow |(f_n(x)-f_m(x))-(f_n(x_0)-f_m(x_0))| \leq \epsilon |x-x_0| $$ This can be shown by the mean value theorem. My question is : How does this help me to prove the theorem ?
Since $\{f_n(x_0)\}$ converges, for each $\epsilon > 0$ and $n, m$ large enough we have $$ \begin{align} \lvert f_n(x) - f_m(x) \rvert &\leq \left\lvert (f_n(x)-f_m(x))-(f_n(x_0)-f_m(x_0)) \right\rvert + \left\lvert f_n(x_0) - f_m(x_0) \right\rvert \\ &\leq \epsilon \left\lvert x - x_0 \right\rvert + \epsilon \\ &\leq \epsilon (b - a) + \epsilon \end{align} $$ Hence $f_n$ converges uniformly on $I$ to a function $f$, moreover for each $\epsilon > 0$ and $m, n$ large enough, the inequality $$ \left\lvert \frac {f_n(y) - f_n(x)} {y - x} - \frac {f_m(y) - f_m(x)} {y - x} \right\rvert \leq \epsilon $$ holds for each $x\neq y\in I$. (It is the same inequality of the hint but now we can assume it holds for generic $y\in I$, because we showed $f_n(y)$ converges for all $y \in I$)
The above relation implies that $\frac {f_n(y) - f_n(x)} {y - x}$ converges uniformly to $\frac {f(y) - f(x)} {y - x}$.
Now we can write $$ \left\lvert\frac {f(y) - f(x)} {y - x} - g(x) \right\rvert \leq \\ \left\lvert\frac {f(y) - f(x)} {y - x} - \frac {f_n(y) - f_n(x)} {y - x} \right\rvert + \left\lvert \frac {f_n(y) - f_n(x)} {y - x} - f_n'(x)\right\rvert + \left\lvert f_n'(x) - g(x) \right\rvert $$ For each $\epsilon > 0$ and $n$ large enough we get $$ \left\lvert\frac {f(y) - f(x)} {y - x} - g(x) \right\rvert \leq 2\frac \epsilon 3 + \left\lvert \frac {f_n(y) - f_n(x)} {y - x} - f_n'(x)\right\rvert $$ and for $y$ close enough to $x$ $$ \left\lvert\frac {f(y) - f(x)} {y - x} - g(x) \right\rvert \leq \epsilon $$ So $f'(x)$ exists and is equal to $g(x)$.
Edit
To clarify the point raised by @DavidC.Ullrich.
Since ${f'_n}$ converges uniformly, there exists $N \in \mathbb N$ such that $\lVert f'_n - f'_m \rVert_\infty < \epsilon$ for all $n, m > N$, that is $$ |f'_n(x) - f'_m(x)| < \epsilon \qquad \forall m,n > N, \forall x\in I $$
So, by means of the mean value theorem, for each $m,n > N$ and for each $x \neq y\in I$ we can write
$$ \left\lvert \frac {f_n(y) - f_n(x)} {y - x} - \frac {f_m(y) - f_m(x)} {y - x} \right\rvert = \\ \left\lvert \frac {f_n(y) - f_m(y)} {y - x} - \frac {f_n(x) - f_m(x)} {y - x} \right\rvert = \\ \left\lvert \frac {(f_n - f_m)(y)- (f_n - f_m)(x)} {y - x}\right\rvert = \\ \lvert (f_n - f_m)'(\xi) \rvert = \\ \lvert f_n'(\xi) - f_m'(\xi)\rvert < \epsilon $$