The function $f_n : (0, \infty) \longrightarrow \mathbb{R}$ is defined by $$f_n(x) = n(x^{1/n}-1)$$ Show that {$f_n$} converges pointwise to $f(x) = \ln x$. Show that the convergence is uniform on each interval $(\frac{1}{m}, m), m \in \mathbb{N}$, but not on $(0, \infty)$.
I've done the point wise part. But can not do the uniform convergence. I've tried using the :
$\sup\left\{|f_n - f| : x \in (1/m, m)\right\}$ $\rightarrow 0$ as $n \rightarrow 0$
I saw that supremum will be at $x \rightarrow n$, so the expression will be evaluated to $g(n) = n(n^{1/n}-1)- \ln n$. If i'm not wrong now my goal would be, to show the sequence $g(n) \rightarrow 0$ as $n \rightarrow 0$.
It would be generous if somebody could help me out. Thanks in advance.
First of all you are using bad notations. You want to prove uniform convergnce of $(f_n)$ on $(\frac 1m, m)$ for any $m$ and the way you are using $n$ with two meanings is not correct.
Now you will see that what is needed is uniform convergence $n(x^{1/n}-1)-\ln x$ to $0$. differentiating this show that the function $n(x^{1/n}-1)-\ln x$ is decreasing on $(\frac 1m , 1)$ and increasing on $(1,m)$. So it is enough to prove that
a) $n(m^{1/n}-1) -\ln m \to 0$
b) $n(m^{-1/n}-1) +\ln m \to 0$
Both these follow from the fact $n(t^{1/n}-1)=n(e^{\frac 1n \ln t}-1)\sim n(\frac 1n \ln t +0(\frac 1 {n^{2}})) \to \ln t$ with $t=m$ and $t=\frac 1 m$.
Suppose the convergence is uniform on $(0,\infty)$. Then there exist $n_0$ such that $|n(x^{1/n}-1)-\ln x | <1$ for all $x >0$ for all $n \geq n_0$. Fix $n=n_0+1$ and take limit as $x \to \infty$. You will get a contradiction because the left side tends to $\infty$ as $x \to \infty$.
[$n(x^{1/n}-1)-\ln x=\ln x [ n\frac {x^{1/n}} {\ln x} -1]-n$. Apply L'Hopital's Rule to see that $\frac {x^{1/n}} {\ln x} \to \infty$].