I want to study the uniform convergence of $\sum\limits_{n=1}^{\infty}(1-x)x^n \rm{~~for}~~ x$ on $[0, 1]$. This is my attempt:
First I study convergence on $[0, 1)$: by Ratio test sum is convergent when $|x|< 1$. Hence, $\sum\limits_{n=1}^{\infty}(1-x)x^n$ on $[0, 1)$. When $x = 1$, $f_n(x) = 0$ and sum of series is convergent. Thus, sum of functional series is convergent on $[0, 1]$.
Is my reasoning correct, and if so can it be considered as a rigorous proof? Thanks.
Hint: $(1-x)x^n=x^n-x^{n+1}$. Just use the partial sums, then everything gets simple as these are partial sums of the geometric series.