Consider the Bergman kernel $K_\Omega$ associated to a domain $\Omega \subseteq \mathbb C^n$. By the reproducing property, it is easy to show that $$K_\Omega(z,\zeta) = \sum_{n=1}^\infty \varphi_k(z) \overline{\varphi_k(\zeta)},\qquad(z,\zeta\in\Omega)$$ where $\{\varphi_k\}_{k=1}^\infty$ is any orthonormal basis of the Bergman space $A^2(\Omega)$ of Lebesgue square-integrable holomorphic functions on $\Omega$.
This series representation converges at least pointwise, since the Bergman kernel's Fourier series, $K_\Omega(\cdot,\zeta) = \sum_{k=1}^\infty \langle K_\Omega(\cdot,\zeta), \varphi_k \rangle \varphi_k$ with $\langle K_\Omega(\cdot,\zeta), \varphi_k \rangle = \overline{\varphi_k(\zeta)}$ converges in norm which implies uniform convergence in the first argument for fixed $\zeta \in \Omega$.
Now in Books such as Function Theory of Several Complex Variables by S. Krantz, it is shown that the series is uniformly bounded on compact sets, namely $$ \sum_{k=1}^\infty \big| \varphi_k(z) \overline{\varphi_k(\zeta)} \big| \leq \bigg(\sum_{k=1}^\infty |\varphi_k(z)|^2 \bigg)^{1/2} \bigg(\sum_{k=1}^\infty |\varphi_k(\zeta)|^2 \bigg)^{1/2} \leq C(K)^2,\qquad(z,\zeta \in K)$$ where $C(K)$ is a constant depending only on the compact set $K\subseteq \Omega$.
My question is this: Why does this imply uniform convergence on compact sets in $\Omega \times \Omega$? This is claimed in several sources, but just stated and not proven. Am I missing something obvious here?
One book which is a bit more specific is Holomorphic Functions and Integral Representations in Several Complex Variables by M. Range. There it is written that uniform convergence on compact subsets of $\Omega \times \Omega$ follows from the uniform bound and a "normality argument", which I take as referring to Montel's theorem. Does anyone know the details on how this argument works?
Any help is appreciated.
Unless I misunderstand, I think the following statement may answer your question.
Proof: By looking locally, we can assume without loss of generality that the $f_n$ are uniformly bounded on $U$. By Montel's theorem, every subsequence of $f_n$ has a subsequence converging uniformly on compact sets.
Let $\mathcal{L}$ denote the set of limits of subsequences of $f_n$ in the topology of uniform convergence on compact sets. On the one hand, $\mathcal{L}$ is nonempty, as we have just noted by Montel's theorem. Suppose that $g\in \mathcal{L}$. Then there is a subsequence $f_{n_k}$ converging uniformly on compact sets to $g$. However, since $f_n$ was assumed to have converged pointwise to $f$, it must be that $g = f$. Thus $\mathcal{L} = \{f\}$. This proves that the sequence $f_n$ has exactly one limit point in the topology of uniformly convergence on compact sets, which exactly means that $f_n\to f$ in this topology. This proves the statement.
To finish out the answer to your question, you would like to just take $f_n$ to be the sequence on $U = \Omega\times\Omega$ given by $f_n(z,\zeta) = \sum_{k=1}^n \varphi_k(z)\overline{\varphi_k(\zeta)}$. This technically doesn't fit into the hypotheses of the statement, since these $f_n$ are not holomorphic. However, if $\overline{\Omega}$ denotes $\Omega$ with the conjugate complex structure, then $f_n\colon \Omega\times\overline\Omega\to \mathbb{C}$ given by $f_n(z,\zeta) = \sum_{k=1}^n \varphi_k(z)\overline{\varphi_k(\zeta)}$ is holomorphic, so you can apply the above here.
I hope that works!