Not sure if this is a suitable question here, but I'm having trouble understanding the intuition behind a theorem I've read in a textbook. So it says the following:
"If $\mathscr R$ is an equivalence relation on a set $A$, then every element $a \in A$ is in exactly one equivalence class. In particular, $a \mathscr R b$ if, and only if, $[a]=[b]$."
I'm having trouble how showing that the "if and only if" statement holding implies that $a$ is in a unique equivalence class. Like I understand proving the "if and only if" part itself, but I don't really know the intuition behind it. I'm guessing it sort of means that either every two equivalence classes are equal or they are disjoint. Could someone please elaborate?
Thanks in advance.
You are correct that any two equivalence classes are equal or disjoint.
Try this for intuition. Suppose you have a bunch of people and each person goes into exactly one room (every room has one or more persons in it). Then person A and person B are in the same room if and only if the set of people in A's room is the same as the set of people in B's room.
Just to be explicit, the underlying set is the set of people. Two people are equivalent (related) if they are in the same room. The equivalence classes are the subsets of people in the various rooms. The equivalence class of a specific person is the set of all people in that person's room (including the person her/him-self).