I know that any vector in a vector space can be uniquely represented as a linear combination of its basis i.e. components of a vector are unique. My question is that if my components of a vector are unique then how to prove that my basis would be unique?
My attempt to the question assuming finite n-dimensional space :
As we know that in a finite-dimensional space there can be many basis but the cardinality of all these basis has to be same ( in this case n) i.e dimensionality = n.
Let {$ v_1, v_2, .... ,v_n $} and {$v'_1, v'_2, .... ,v'_n$} be the basis of the V.S.
v= $a_1 v_1 + a_2 v_2 +...... + a_n v_n$
v= $a_1 v'_1 + a_2 v'_2 +...... + a_n v'_n$
Now, writing {$v'_1, v'_2, .... ,v'_n$} in terms of {$ v_1, v_2, .... ,v_n $} considering latter the basis of V.S.
I got the whole bunch of equations from which I am not able to see how to prove $v_i =v'_i$ $ \forall$ i.
Thanks in advance.
From the comments, let me rephrase the question:
This is true. To verify this, fix $i_0\in I$, and consider how to express $v_{i_0}$ as a linear combination of $\beta$: $$v_{i_0} = 1v_{i_0} + \sum_{i\in I-\{i_0\}}0v_i.$$
By assumption, the way to express $v_{i_0}$ in terms of $\beta’$ is $$v_{i_0} = 1v’_{i_0} + \sum_{i\in I-\{i_0\}}0v’_i.$$ But the latter expression is just $v’_{i_0}$. Hence, $v_{i_0}=v’_{i_0}$.
As this holds for an arbitrary $i_0\in I$, it follows that $\beta=\beta’$.
By the way, the other interpretation, that the assertion holds for a single (nonzero) vector $v$, is false if $\dim(V)\gt 1$. To see this, take $\beta$, and take two vectors in $\beta$, $v_1,v_2$. Let $\beta’$ be the basis obtained by replacing $v_2$ with $v_1+v_2$. Then every vector in $\mathrm{span}(\beta-\{v_2\})$ has the same expansion relative to $\beta$ as relative to $\beta’$, but $\beta\neq \beta’$.