Let $\prec$ be a binary relation on a set $A$… A predicate $P(x)$ set $(x:A)$ is said to be progressive with respect to $(A,\prec)$ if \begin{equation} (\forall a:A)\Big((\forall b:A)\big(b \prec a \supset P(b)\big)\supset P(a)\Big) \quad \text{true} \tag{*} \end{equation}
The binary relation $(A,\prec)$ is said to be well founded if for every progressive predicate $P$ on $A$, $(\forall x: A)P(x)$.
In classical set theory $(A,<)$ is well-founded if and only if for any predicate $P$ on $A$
\begin{equation} (\exists x: A)P(x) \supset(\exists x_{0}:A)\Big(P(x) \land (\forall y :A)\big(P(y) \supset \neg (y < x_{0})\big)\Big) \tag{**} \end{equation}
I was informed by my tutor that this equivalence is unprovable in type theory. Since he did not provide any justifications, I am curious to know what exactly makes this impossible? Would some unacceptable instances of PEM occur?
Let $A = \{ 0, 1 \}$, the inductive type with two constant generators. One can prove (by induction) that the natural ordering on $A$ is well-founded in the sense of ($\ast$). Suppose it were well-founded in the sense of (${\ast}{\ast}$) instead. Let $Q$ be an arbitrary proposition and let $P$ be defined by induction as follows: \begin{align} P(0) & \equiv Q \\ P(1) & \equiv \top \end{align} Thus, there must exist $x_0 : A$ such that $P (x_0)$ and $\forall y : A . P (y) \to \lnot (y < x_0)$. But $\forall a : A . (a = 0) \lor (a = 1)$, so either $x_0 = 0$ or $x_0 = 1$. If $x_0 = 1$ then $P (0)$ holds, i.e. $Q$ holds. If $x_0 = 1$, then $P (0) \to \lnot (0 < 1)$, so $\lnot P (0)$ holds, i.e. $\lnot Q$ holds. Therefore $Q \lor \lnot Q$.
For those who like this kind of thing, here is a proof in Coq: