Consider the Lebesgue measure $\lambda$ on $\mathbb{R}$. Given that $f: \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R} $ is integrable,
Ik would like to show the following using the dominant convergence theorem:
$$\lim_{\ n \to \infty} \| f \ 1_{[n,n+1]} \|_1 = 0$$
I started as follows:
$$\begin{align}
\| f \ 1_{[n,n+1]} \|_1 &= \int_\mathbb{R} |f \ 1_{[n,n+1]}| \, d\lambda \\
&= \int_\mathbb{R} |f \ 1_{[n,n+1]}| \, d\lambda
\end{align}$$
$f_n = |f \ 1_{[n,n+1]}|$ is dominated by $|f|$, because $|f \ 1_{[n,n+1]}| \leq |f| $ for all $x \in \mathbb{R}$ and |f| is integrable, because if $f$ is integrable, then absolute value of $f$ is also. We can apply dominant convergence:
$$\begin{align} \lim_{\ n \to \infty} \| f \ 1_{[n,n+1]} \|_1 &=\lim_{\ n \to \infty}\int_\mathbb{R} |f \ 1_{[n,n+1]}| \, d\lambda \\ &= \int_\mathbb{R} \lim_{\ n \to \infty}|f \ 1_{[n,n+1]}| \, d\lambda \\ &= \int_\mathbb{R} 0 \, d\lambda \\ &= 0 \end{align}$$ But I feel like I am doing something wrong.
Solution is correct but looks overcomplicated. Here is how I would write it.
You must show $$\int |f|I_{[n,n+1]}d \lambda \to 0$$
But you have $|f|I_{[n,n+1]} \to 0$ pointwise, $|f|I_{[n,n+1]} \leq |f|$ for all $n \geq 1$ and $\int |f| d \lambda < \infty$, so by the dominated convergence theorem we can conclude.