Let $u=f(x,y)$ and $v=g(x,y)$ be defined in a region "R". Suppose there exists another non constant function $h$, of class $C^{1}$, s.t $h(u,v)=0$ $\forall (x,y) \in$ R. Prove that
$J=\frac{\partial(u,v)}{\partial(x,y)}=0 $, $\forall(x,y)\in$ R.
What I've managed to prove so far is the following. If you derivate $h(u,v)$ with respect to $x$ and $y$ you get a homogeneous system of linear equations. If this system has non trivial solutions, then the problem is solved.
I appreciate any help, Thanks!
$$ 0=\frac{\partial h(u(x,y),v(x,y))}{\partial x}=h_u u_x+h_v v_x,\\ 0=\frac{\partial h(u(x,y),v(x,y))}{\partial y}=h_u u_y+h_v v_y, $$ and hence $$ (h_u,h_v)\cdot (u_x,v_x)=(h_u,h_v)\cdot (u_y,u_y)=0, $$ and as $h$ is non-constant, then $(h_u,h_v)$ does not vanish identically, and thus the vectors $$ (u_x,u_y)\quad \text{and}\quad (v_x,v_y), $$ are parallel, and thus $$ \left|\begin{array}{cc} u_x & u_y \\ v_x & v_y \end{array} \right|=0. $$