$ \frac{(2n)!}{(2^n)} $ is a natural number for all n $ \ge $ 0.
Base case: n = 1
$ \frac{(2(1))!}{(2^{1})} $ = $ \frac{2*1}{2} $ = 1
My understanding is that there could be a way to figure out the induction step by proving that $ 2^n $ divides (2n)! for all n $ \ge $ 0. However, I was also looking at how for some number k, where n + 1 = k + 1, then
$ \frac{(2(k+1))!}{(2^{k+1})} $ = $ \frac{(2k+2))!}{(2^{k+1})} $.
I just don't know if I should take this approach or choose to do something with mod. Any thoughts or help? Thank you.
Let it be true for $n=k$, so let $a_k=\frac{(2k)!}{2^{k}}$. Let $n=k+1$: $a_{k+1}=\frac{(2(k+1))!}{2^{k+1}}=\frac{(2k)!}{2^{k}}\cdot\frac{(2k+1)(2k+2)}{2}=a_k(2k+1)(k+1)$. If $a_k$ is an integer then $a_{k+1}$ is one too.