In a standard proof by contradiction of the statement p => q “p implies q”, we can suppose the statement is false. If we then derive an absurdity then the statement is shown to not be false, hence it must be true.
But it seems when we begin our proof by contradiction we begin with the claim:
the statement is either true or false. Suppose it is false...
Hence when we show the statement cannot be false, the only other possible option/case is true. But it seems there is another option in that the statement could be unprovable, so the original claim in yellow above should read:
the statement is either true or false or unprovable.
I am hoping someone could show me why a proof by contradiction still works and where I have gone wrong.
Also: I believe I remember my professor saying that if a statement is unprovable then it can be shown to both be true AND false. Is this correct?
Note: I am not acquainted with formal logic notation
In standard logic we accept all tautologies, which include the law of the excluded middle. For any statement $\phi$ we have $\phi \vee \lnot \phi$. If you start with $\phi$ and derive a contradiction, you can conclude $\lnot \phi$
Depending on your axioms, there may be many statements $\phi$ where we cannot derive either $\phi$ or $\lnot \phi$. This means the axioms are incomplete. In the metatheory this tells us that our axioms are consistent, as from inconsistent axioms you can derive anything. In this case you can assume $\phi$ and still cannot prove a contradiction. You can also assume $\lnot \phi$ and cannot prove a contradiction. You can then add either $\phi$ or $\lnot \phi$ to your axioms and still have a consistent set.
No, if you cannot prove $\phi$ or $\lnot \phi$ that does not mean that $\phi$ is both true and false. It means there are models of the axioms where $\phi$ is true and also models where $\phi$ is false.