Why can I not apply the chain rule to a product in the following way.
If we have some product:
$$f(x)=a(x)b(x)$$
Consider the multiplication of b by a as another’s function so that:
$$f(b(x))=ab$$
So that
$\frac{df}{dx} = f’(b)b’(x)$
Something feels very wrong. But I can’t put my finger on it.
If $f(x)=a(x)x$ (it looks as if this is what you have in mind), then $f\bigl(b(x)\bigr)$ is equal to $a\bigl(b(x)\bigr)b(x)$, instead of $a(x)b(x)$.