Is it possible to say:
$$ If \ f(x) \ and \ g(x) \ both \ have \ limits \ as \ x\to p\ and \ f(x) \le g(x), \ then \lim_{x \to p} f(x)\le \lim_{x \to p} g(x). $$
My proof(Edit: Proof is wrong due to assumption of the conclusion): $$ Assume \ H(x)=f(x)-g(x) \ ,then\\ \lim_{x \to p} H(x)=\lim_{x \to p}[f(x) - g(x)]\\=\lim_{x \to p}f(x)-\lim_{x \to p}g(x) \\\\so \ \lim_{x \to p}f(x)\le \lim_{x \to p}g(x)\ \square $$
If this theorem is true is it possible to prove the Squeeze Principle(without $\epsilon,\delta$): $$ Suppose \ that \ f(x)\le g(x)\le h(x) \ for \ all x\ne p \ in \ some\ neighborhood \ N(p). \ Suppose \ also \ that \lim_{x\to p}f(x)=\lim_{x\to p}h(x) =a. \\Then\ we\ also\ have\ \lim_{x\to p}g(x)=a. $$
My proof:
$$ \lim_{x\to p}f(x)\le\lim_{x \to p}g(x) \ \ and \ \lim_{x \to p}g(x)\le \lim_{x \to p}h(x)\ so\\a\le \lim_{x \to p}g(x) \ and \ \lim_{x \to p}g(x) \le a \ so\\\lim_{x \to p}g(x)=a\ \square. $$
It is true that if $\lim_{x \to x_0} f(x) = a$ and $\lim_{x \to x_0} g(x) =b$ and for every $x$ it holds that $f(x) \leq g(x)$, then $a \leq b$. And as your proof would show, this is equivalent to: if for every $x$ it holds that $f(x) \geq 0$ and if $\lim_{x \to x_0}f(x) = a$, then $a \geq 0$. Though I do think you are assuming the latter claim to prove the former (ie. in your proof, how do you know that $\lim_{x \to x_0}H(x) \geq 0$?). Another approach would be to assume that $f(x) \geq 0$ for every $x$ and $\lim_{x \to x_0} f(x) = a$, but $a < 0$. Draw a contradiction by using the definition of convergence and cleverly setting $\epsilon = |a|/2$. You should find that with $a < 0$ you must have some $x$ near $x_0$ such that $|f(x)-a|\leq |a|/2 \implies f(x) <0$ contradicting the assumption.
For the squeeze theorem, IF you know that $\lim_{x \to x_0}g(x)$ exists, then your proof is good. However, you might want to a little more work to argue that the limit of $g(x)$ exists as $x \to x_0$.