I'm having trouble proving this with natural deduction:
$$p \to (q \land r) ~\vdash~ (q\to r) \lor \lnot (p \lor r)$$
I understand that I only need to prove one side to introduce an disjunction. I also think I should start from an hypothesis of either $¬p$ to get $p$, or $(p ∨ r)$ to get $¬(p ∨ r)$ but I can't seem to be able to get a contradiction out of the premise.
I'm really stuck, so help would be great, thanks.
I assume you are using classical logic. Assume $\lnot (p \lor r)\lor (p \lor r)$. Let's work by elimination of $\lor$. If $\lnot (p \lor r)$ then $(q\to r) \lor \lnot (p \lor r)$, else if $p \lor r$ we have to introduce $\to$. In the first case: $p$ we use the hypothesis to conclude $q\land r$ and hence $q\to r$ (easy introduction of $\to$), in the second case: $r$ we can introduce $\to$, getting - again - $q\to r$. So in both the cases of $p\lor r$ we obtain $q\to r$ and obviously $(q\to r) \lor \lnot (p \lor r)$. So we can conclude having proved that in both cases $\lnot (p \lor r)$ and $p \lor r$, under the assumption $p \to (q \land r)$ it holds also $(q\to r) \lor \lnot (p \lor r)$.