If $R$ is a DVR then we know that $R$ has only two prime ideals. Does this still hold true for valuation ring $R$?
I was trying to prove this by showing: Let $R$ be a valuation ring. I wanted to prove given $x,y \in R$ if $0 < v(x) < v(y)$ then $v(x^m)> v(y)$ for some $m \in \mathbb{Z}$.
But as I have been pointed out by the comments this does not hold in general.
Are there examples of valuation ring $R$ with more than two prime ideals? Any comments/examples would be appreciated. Thank you.
ps I have changed my question from asking how to show the above inequality to this since the question I was asking is not true in general as pointed out in the comments.
$\Bbb{Z+\epsilon Z}$ is an ordered abelian group. On $k[x,y]$ we have the valuation $$v(x)=1,v(y)=\epsilon, \qquad v(\sum_{i,j} c_{i,j} x^i y^j) = \inf_{c_{i,j}\ne 0} v(x^i y^j)\in \Bbb{Z+\epsilon Z}$$ $v^{-1}(\infty)=\{0\}$ so $v$ extends to the fraction field and the valuation ring is $$O_v = \{ u\in Frac(k[x,y]), v(u)\ge 0\}=k[y]_{(y)}+x k(y)[x]_{(x)}$$ you'll obtain 3 prime ideals : $(0), (xk[y^{-1}]),(y)$
This valuation is not $\Bbb{R}$-valued : it doesn't correspond to an absolute value.