When reading the proof for Dirichlet's Approximation Theorem, I came across the following statement:
If $x$ is irrational, then $nx - [nx]$ are distinct for all $n \in \mathbb{Z}$.
I don't really understand why. Can someone explain to me, preferably with a proof. Thanks.
Suppose $nx-[nx]=mx-[mx]$. Then $$(n-m)x=[nx]-[mx]\in\mathbb{Z}$$ But an integer multiple of an irrational number can only be an integer if it is $0$, so we must have $$n=m$$ Therefore it is distinct for all $n$.