If $f\colon\Bbb R\to\Bbb R$ then $\operatorname{var}(f, [a,b]):=\sup \{\sum_{k=1}^n |f(x_k)-f(x_{k-1})| \}$, where supremum is taken over all finite sequences $(x_k)$ such that $a=x_0<x_1<\cdots<x_{n-1}<x_n=b$, is called a variation of $f$ on $[a,b]$.
Let $f:R \rightarrow R$ be $1$-periodic and $c \in R$.
Is it then $\operatorname{var}(f, [0,1])=\operatorname{var}(f, [c, c+1])$ ?
The proposed statement is true. Suppose $c$ is not an integer and $c<n<c+1$, and $n$ is an integer.
I think most of the work is in proving the first bulleted statement above; your question makes it appear that you know how to do the rest.