I have a couple of simple proofs of a simple proposition and I'm curious to see the variety of different approaches others would take to prove the same thing.
Definition: The dilation of a sequence $a_1, a_2, a_3,\ldots$ by a factor $n$ is the sequence $b_1,b_2,b_3,\ldots$ for which $$ \begin{cases} b_{kn} = a_k & \text{for } k=1,2,3,\ldots, \\ b_j = 0 & \text{if $j$ is not a multiple of $n$.} \end{cases} $$ Thus the dilation of $a_1,a_2,a_3,\ldots$ by a factor of $3$ is $$ 0,\ 0,\ a_1,\ 0,\ 0,\ a_2,\ 0,\ 0,\ a_3,\ 0,\ 0,\ a_4,\ \ldots $$ (This is not standard terminology as far as I know, so tell me if there's some standard name for this.)
Now let $\{a_k\}_{k=1}^\infty$ consist of an infinite sequence of repetitions of $1,0,0,0,1,0$ (a $\text{“}1\text{''}$ in the $1$st and $5$th positions and $\text{“}0\text{''s}$ elsewhere). In other words $a_k$ is just the indicator that $k$ is coprime to $6$.
Now start by letting $c$ be an infinite sequence of $0$s and proceed as follows:
1. Let $n$ be the smallest index for which $c_n=0$ (thus initially $n=1$);
2. Let the new value of $c$ be $(c + \text{the dilation of } a \text{ by } n)$ (where the occurrence of $c$ inside the round brackets is the value of $c$ we had at the end of step $1$.);
3. Go back to step $1$.
This goes on forever.
Proposition: This process converges to an infinite sequence of $1$s. (Thus, we never add $1$ to any position that was not $0$.)
As I said, I have a couple of simple proofs and I am curious to see the variety of different approaches others would take to prove the same thing.
Let $A$ be the set of numbers whose prime factors are in $\{2;3\}$ and $B$ be the set of numbers whose prime factors are not in $\{2;3\}$.
The fundamental theorem of arithmetic implies that (as multiplicative monoids) $\Bbb N = A \times B = \bigcup_{a \in A} aB$ and so $\Bbb N$ can be partitioned into dilations of $B$ (or into dilations of $A$ too but that's not the point here)
So we need to prove that with your procedure we obtain exactly those dilations, in the same order : that $a \in A$ if and only if $a$ is not in $a'B$ for some $a' < a$ but this is easy :
if $a \in A$ then $a$ is in the $aB$ piece and not any other piece.
If $a$ is not of the form $a'b$ with $b>1$ then since it also can't be $a'.b$ for $a'>a$, its decomposition has to be $a=a.1$ and so $a \in A$.
Interestingly, if $\Bbb N = A \times B$ for some submonoids $A$ and $B$ then this shows that $B$ is completely determined by $A$ (and vice-versa)