I don't understand how to solve the following problem. Can you help me?
Prove that there are only two vector bundles of rank $k$ with base $S^{1}$ $-$ trivial $1_{k}$ and non-trivial $\eta_{k}$.
Then let $S^{1}=\{z\in C, |z|=1\}$ and $f:S^{1} \to S^{1}$, $f(z)=z^{n}$. Find the bundle $f^{*}\eta_{k}$.
Here's the idea of clutching functions. (Almost all of what I'm going to say works, more generally, for any sphere.)
Start with a rank $k$ vector bundle $\xi$ over $S^1$. Let $U$ be the open northern hemisphere, extended ever so slightly beyond the equator. Likewise, let $V$ be the open southern hemisphere, slightly extended. So, $S^1 = U\cup V$ and $U\cap V$ consists of two small disjoint open intervals around $(\pm 1,0)$.
Since both $U$ and $V$ are contracible, $\xi|_U$ and $\xi|_V$ must be trivial. The full bundle $\xi$ can be recovered by gluing $\xi|_U \cong U\times \mathbb{R}^k$ and $\xi|_V \cong V\times\mathbb{R}^k$ together appropriately. Such a gluing is given by a map $f:U\cap V\rightarrow Gl(k,\mathbb{R})$, called the clutching function of $\xi$.
Fact: If $f$ and $g:U\cap V\rightarrow Gl(k,\mathbb{R})$ are homotopic, then the bundles formed by gluing via $f$ and $g$ are isomorphic.
Since in our case, $U\cap V$ is homotopy equivalent to $S^0$, a disjoint union of two points, the set of homotopy classes of maps from $U\cap V$ to $Gl(k,\mathbb{R})$ is in natural bijective correspondence with $\pi_0(Gl(k,\mathbb{R}))$. But this is well known to be a 2 pointed set. It follows that there are at most 2 bundles of any given rank over $S^1$.
To show there are at least 2 bundles of every rank over $S^1$, begin with the observation that the Moebius bundle $M$ is a nontrivial bundle over $S^1$ of rank $1$. Further, the Moebius bundle is non-orientable. Now, convince yourself that $M\oplus 1_{k-1}$ must also be nonorientable and rank $k$, so this provides a nontrivial bundle of rank $k$ over $S^1$.
Finally, for the last argument, we've now proven that $\eta_k$ is isomorphic to $M\oplus 1_{k-1}$. Now, to compute $f^\ast \eta_k$, it's clear that it's the same as $(f^\ast M) \oplus 1_{k-1}$ so it's enough to figure out that $f^\ast M$ is. This can be done with bare hands (and pictures!). Just to give a hint, the answer is that $f^\ast M$ is trivial iff $n$ is even.