On a book I read the following:
the slope of the level set of a function G through the point$x_0,y_0$,is $-\frac{\frac{∂G}{∂x}(x_0,y_0)}{\frac{∂G}{∂y}(x_0,y_0)}$, so that the vector which realizes the slope is: $v=(1,-\frac{\frac{∂G}{∂x}(x_0,y_0)}{\frac{∂G}{∂y}(x_0,y_0)})$.
What is not clear to me is why is $v=(1,-\frac{\frac{∂G}{∂x}(x_0,y_0)}{\frac{∂G}{∂y}(x_0,y_0)})$ the vector that realizes the slope $-\frac{\frac{∂G}{∂x}(x_0,y_0)}{\frac{∂G}{∂y}(x_0,y_0)}$. Can you help me?
If the slope of a line is $m$, then $y$ changes by $m$ whenever $x$ changes by $1$. So a vector that goes $1$ in the $x$ direction and $m$ in the $y$ direction has slope $m.$