In the book "Function Theory of a Complex Varible" i'm having trouble verifying my proposed proof of the conjecture in $(1.)$
$(1.)$
If $b_{n} > 1$ for all n, then:
$$\prod_{n}b_{n}$$
converges if and only if:
$$\sum_{n}\log(b_{n}) < \infty$$
Proposition $(1.1)$:
Let $a,b \in \mathbb{N}$ with a < b and let $f: \, [a,b] \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ be a monotonic function on [a,b]. There exists a real number $\theta=\theta(a,b) $ such that $-1 \leq \theta \leq 1$ and such that
$(1.1)$ $$\sum_{a < n \leq b} f(n) = \int_{a}^{b}f(t)dt + \theta(f(b)-f(a)).$$
Lemma:
My initial attack on $(1.)$ begins with making the following observation:
$$\log \prod_{n}b_{n} = \sum_{n}^{}(\log(log(b_{n})) < \infty$$
With further cleanup it is evident that our original conjecture now becomes the following:
$$\log b_{n} = b_{2} \cdot b_{3} \cdot b_{4} \cdot b_{5} \cdot b_{6} \cdot b_{7} \cdot b_{8} \cdot b_{9} \cdot \cdot \cdot \cdot b_{n} = \sum_{n}(log(log(b)-log(log(n) < \infty$$
$$\log b_{n} = b_{2} \cdot b_{3} \cdot b_{4} \cdot b_{5} \cdot b_{6} \cdot b_{7} \cdot b_{8} \cdot b_{9} \cdot \cdot \cdot \cdot b_{n} = \sum_{n}(log(log(b)-log(log(1)) + \cdot \cdot \cdot + (log(log(b)-log(log(1)) < \infty$$
Applying $(1.1)$ to our subtle but recent observations we know have the result:
$$b_{n}=\sum_{n}^{}(\log(\log(b)-\log(\log(n))=\int_{0}^{m}\log(\log(b)-\log(\log(n))+\theta(\log(\log(b)-log(log(n))n-(\log(\log(b)-log(log(n))1 < \infty$$
Which from brief observation the integral on the RHS side can be evaluated or approximated to a finite value which is obviously less then infinity.
the logarithm is a continuous function for all $x>1$. Hence it commutes with limits in this domain. As each $b_n>1$, all $P_N = \prod_{n\le N}b_n>1$, and so
which is exactly your statement when you apply the functional equation for the logarithm function. And since it is monotone, if the $P_N\to\infty$, so too is $\sum \log(b_n)\to\infty$.