It seems clear from the graph of $f(x)=\sin(x)+\cos(x/2)$ that the period $p$ of the function is equal to $4\pi$.
To verify that $4\pi$ is a period of $f(x)$, note that
\begin{align} \sin(x + 4\pi) + \cos\left(\frac{x + 4\pi}{2}\right) & =\sin(x)\cos(4\pi)+\cos(x)\sin(4\pi)+\cos(x/2)\cos(4\pi/2)-\sin(x/2)\sin(4\pi/2) \\ & =\sin(x)+\cos(x/2) \end{align}
Thus $4\pi$ is indeed a period of $f$. My question is, how would one go about trying to prove that $4\pi$ is the smallest $p>0$ such that $f(x+p)=f(x)$?

If you already have a $p$ such that $f(x+p)=f(x)$ for all $x$, then you can look at the function on the segment $[0,p)$ and check if it can be written as several copies (after proving that any other period is $p/n$ for integer $n$). You can look at the intersections with the origin, for instance. If there is more than one, you can check if $f'(x_1)=f'(x_2)$. if not, then there is no smaller period. Otherwise, you have to keep checking.