Would anybody know of a visual or even (preferably) geometric representation of this?
To make it more specific: Text, symbols and written numbers are predominantly used as labels, and and less to represent the (ir)rationals themselves, or relations between the two groups. Like, if you need an image or a picture for your answer, that's probably it.
For example:
It does not have to be a rigorous proof, just a visual approach—if possible.
At the same time, a (somewhat elementary) explanation of why it does not make sense to try to visualize this relation (geometrically) is just as welcome.


Here is a geometric difference between the rationals and the irrationals: the length of the rationals equals zero, whereas the length of the irrationals equals infinity.
Here's why the rationals have zero length. Start with an enumeration of the rationals: $$p_1,p_2,p_3,... $$
Pick your favorite tiny positive number $\epsilon>0$.
For each $k=1,2,3,...$, let $I_k$ be the interval centered on $p_k$ of radius $\frac{\epsilon}{2^k}$. Now take the union of these intervals: $$X = I_1 \cup I_2 \cup I_3 \cup \cdots $$ The total length of $X$ is no more than the sum $$\text{Length}(I_1) + \text{Length}(I_2) + \text{Length}(I_3) + \cdots = \frac{\epsilon}{2} + \frac{\epsilon}{2^2} + \frac{\epsilon}{2^3} + \cdots = \epsilon $$ But the rationals are contained in $X$, so the total length of the rationals is at most $\epsilon$.
But you can repeat this argument for tinier and tinier values of $\epsilon$, approaching zero.
So the total length of the rationals is zero.
But the total length of the irrationals is infinity, because it equals the the total length of the whole real line (which is infinity) minus the total length of the rationals (which is zero).
Thus, there are more irrationals than rationals.
Now this argument may sound fishy, but it turns out to be completely rigorous. Once you have developed the Lebesgue measure of the real line, substitute the phrase "Lebesgue measure" for "length", and you've got a proof.