Can someone help me to understand why if $$u_n(x)\rightarrow 0,\, \text{a.e in}\, \mathbb{R}^N$$
then $$u_n\rightharpoonup 0,\, \text{in}\, W^{1,N}(\mathbb{R}^N)$$
Thank you
Edit : $\|u_n\|_{1,N}$ is bounded
Can someone help me to understand why if $$u_n(x)\rightarrow 0,\, \text{a.e in}\, \mathbb{R}^N$$
then $$u_n\rightharpoonup 0,\, \text{in}\, W^{1,N}(\mathbb{R}^N)$$
Thank you
Edit : $\|u_n\|_{1,N}$ is bounded
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