I have following setup:
$f\in W^{1,1}(\mathbb{R}^3)$ with $f\geq 0$ and $\int_{\mathbb{R}^3}f=1$, how can I show that the weak derivative of $\tilde{f}(x):=\int_{\mathbb{R}^2}f(x,y,z)\,\text{d}y\text{d}z$ is $\int_{\mathbb{R}^2}\partial_x f(x,y,z)\,\text{d}y\text{d}z$?
The problem arguing with test functions are the different domain dimensions of $f(x,y,z)$ and $\tilde{f}(x)$ ...
I am looking forward for any suggestions and hints :)
This is a guideline not a full answer.
Some tools we would like to use include: applying the DCT so that you could do differentiation under the integral sign.
We need to verify the following: