Weak partial derivative versus strong derivative

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Let $f\in W^{1,p}(U)\,,U \subset\mathbb{R}^n$ open. If $f$ satisfies:

$$| D^\beta f(x) - D^\beta f(y)|\leq C |x-y|^\gamma $$

a. e. for some $0\leq \gamma \leq 1,\, x,y \in U$ and $|\beta|\leq 1$. Then there exists a subset $V$ of null measure such that $f$ is a differentiable function for $x\in U\setminus V$ and

$$ \partial_{x_i} f(x) = D_i f(x) \,\, a.e. x\in U$$

Here $D$ is the weak derivative and $\partial$ is the strong derivative.


I tried to start with the definition of a weak derivative, but I didn't go too far. Another attempt was to use the fundamental theorem of calculus at the beginning, but I arrive at an expression with the gradient of $ f $ and do not advance from there.

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You can find the answered here. The concept of approximate differentability comes in handy here, since the approximate derivative is equivalent to the weak derivative for all $f\in W^{1,p}$.

Let $E \subset \mathbb{R}^{n}$ be a measurable set with finite measure. A function $f: E \rightarrow \mathbb{R}^{k}$ is approximately differentiable almost everywhere if for every $\varepsilon>0$ there is a compact set $F \subset E$ such that $\lambda(E \backslash F)<\varepsilon$ and $\left.f\right|_{F}$ is $C^{1}$ (i.e. there exists an extension $g$ of $\left.f\right|_{F}$ to $\mathbb{R}^{n}$ which is $C^{1})$. Clearly the Lebesgue measure of $E \backslash F$ is zero.

In the latter theorem it follows also that the classical differential of $\left.f\right|_{F}$ coincides with the approximate differential of $f$ at almost every $x_{0} \in F$.

For more details see Section 6 of L.C. Evans, R.F. Gariepy, "Measure theory and fine properties of functions" Studies in Advanced Mathematics.