Say I have the following two sets:
- $\mathbb{R} \cup \{ 0\}$ under < (less than operator)
- $\{(a,b) | a,b \in \mathbb{Z^+} \}$ under $(a,b) \prec (c,d) \iff (a<c) \land (b <d)$.
For $\mathbb{R} \cup \{ 0\}$ I said yes because every subsets will have a least element. For example $\{0\} \subset \mathbb{R} \cup \{ 0\} \text{ and } \{0,1,2\} \subset\mathbb{R} \cup \{ 0\}$, $0$ is the least element in the last subset.
For $\{(a,b) | a,b \in \mathbb{Z^+} \}$ I am saying no because there is not greatest element in each of these subsets.
Looking for some verification to see if my reasoning is correct with these problems.