I know there's a theorem stating that if the columns of $A$ are independent, then the columns of $A^TA$ are also independent ($A$ is invertible $\Rightarrow A^TA$ is positive symmetric definite is the most common way to prove this. That $A^TA$ is invertible follows immediately from the fact that $0$ is not an eigenvalue)
But is that the minimum requirement for $A^TA$ to be invertible, or can $A^TA$ be invertible even in cases where $A$ is not? I have not been able to prove in general that "$A$ is not invertible $\Rightarrow A^TA$ is not invertible".
This can be shown without invoking determinants as follows: Note that $A^TAx=0$ iff either $Ax=0$ or $A^Tz=0$ for some $z\in\operatorname{Im}(A)$. Consequently:
$$ \ker(A^TA) = \ker(A) \oplus A^{-1}\Big(\ker(A^T)\cap \operatorname{Im}(A))\Big)$$
Here, $A^{-1}$ denotes the pre-image. However, $\ker(A^T) = \operatorname{Im}(A)^\perp$ (this is a fundamental Lemma in linear algebra, remember it/ try to prove it on your own!), hence $\ker(A^T)\cap \operatorname{Im}(A)=\{0\}$. So
$$\ker(A^TA) = \ker(A)\oplus A^{-1}\big(\{0\}\big) =\ker(A) \oplus \ker(A) = \ker(A)$$
In particular, if $A$ is square, then $A$ is invertible if and only if $A^T A$ is invertible.