I am taking an undergraduate analysis course, and last week we began to deal with connectedness. Before defining connectnedness, our instructor gave us an alterative definition of an open set. This is the definition:
Let ${U\subset S\subseteq \mathbb{R}^n}$. ${U}$ is open in ${S}$ if ${U = S\cap V}$, for some ${V}$ open in ${\mathbb{R}^n}$.
I don't understand for what it means for the set ${U}$ to be open in ${S}$, as opposed to it being open in ${\mathbb{R}^n}$. I'm trying to correlate this with the definition of an open set as given in Mathematical Analysis by Apostol, which is that a set ${A \subseteq \mathbb{R}^n}$ is open if ${\forall}$ ${x \in A}$, ${\exists}$ ${\epsilon > 0}$ ${|}$ ${B_\epsilon(x) \subseteq A}$.
Does it even make sense to correlate the two? Or is openness inside a set different from openness in general, and this new definition should be accepted as gospel?
That's not an "alternative" definition of open set. It's the definition of the so-called subspace topology. It is the best way to define a topology (i.e. which sets are considered open) on $S$ which agrees with the topology of $\Bbb R^n$.
For instance, in $S=[0,1]\subseteq \Bbb R$ (where $\Bbb R$ has the standard topology), we have that $[0,\frac12)$ is considered open, because you can write it as the intersection between $S$ and some open interval, like $(-1,\frac12)$. Of course, something like $(\frac13,\frac23)$ is also open in $S$.
And yes, it makes some sense to correlate the two. A subset $U\subseteq S$ is open iff for any $s\in S$ there is an $\epsilon$ such that $B_\epsilon(s)\cap S\subseteq U$. Or you could consider $S$ as a metric space in its own right (with the metric inherited from $\Bbb R^n$), and in that case you can actually remove the "${}\cap S$" from the above (because the interpretation of $B$ changes), and it will truly look exactly the way your used to.