I generated random samples from some distribution with known parameter $p$ and then based on the samples estimated the real value of $p$. It turned out that bias, MSE and variance are symmetrical around fixed value of $p$ and because they are non-accidental I suppose that the estimator is biased. Is such conclusion correct?
2026-03-26 11:06:52.1774523212
What does it mean when bias is a function of the estimated parameter?
45 Views Asked by user140541 https://math.techqa.club/user/user140541/detail AtRelated Questions in STATISTICS
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