If you're given that $$\sum_{k=1}^{n}k=\frac{n(n+1)}{2}$$
and let's say that prove that $\sum_{k=1}^{n}k+\frac{1}{k+n}=blah$, $n>0$ what does $k$ in itself equal? I mean if you had to put $k$ in $n$ terms.
PS - the exact question is different but I need to understand the idea of it to apply it to the actual question.
You can't get "$k$" in terms of $n$ seeing as $k$ is an indexing variable as already pointed out. I think you want to get a closed form of your partial sum in terms of $n$. In which case, there's really no catch-all trick to do this for any partial sum. For this particular one, you can split the sum since it's a finite sum into $$ \sum_{i=1}^{n} (i + \frac{1}{i+n}) = \sum_{j=1}^{n} j + \sum_{k=1}^{n} \frac{1}{k+n}$$ and you already know what $\sum_{j=1}^{n} j$ equals.
Now we just want to find a closed form for the rightmost sum. Unfortunately, there doesn't seem to be a closed form for this sum.
In general, what I'd try first for these problems is guessing a closed form then proving it by induction after plugging in some values of $n$, or I'd try to work with the terms (e.g. slick telescoping sum tricks). There are other methods out there (e.g. Abel's summation formula).