Suppose we have $f(x,y)=x+y$, and $\operatorname{domain}(f)=\{(x,y) \mid y=2x\}$. Now, what happens to $\dfrac{\partial f}{\partial x}$ at some point in the domain, say $(x_0,y_0)$? Will it be some real number, $0$ or undefined? According to me, this should be undefined. I think so because one can write $f(x,y)=3x$, and conclude $$\dfrac{\partial f}{\partial x}=3$$ or one may write $f(x,y)=\dfrac{3}{2}y$, and conclude $$\dfrac{\partial f}{\partial x}=0$$ However, if the function is defined over a curve, then finding the partial derivatives is meaningless, as keeping one quantity fixed is not possible. So, shouldn't this mean that these functions don't have partial derivatives?
The question arose in my mind while thinking of finding $\dfrac{df}{dt}$, for parametrisation $$x=t,y=2t$$ If I use total derivatives, $$\dfrac{df}{dt}=\dfrac{\partial f}{\partial x}\dfrac{dx}{dt}+\dfrac{\partial f}{\partial y}\dfrac{dy}{dt}$$ then I am confused regarding the partials. Shouldn't this operation be undefined for such functions?
This is my first answer here. In the first case, when you speak of $y=2x$, you define a particular domain, namely, the line $y-2x=0$. So the partial derivatives would not make any sense for $f$.
On the other hand, you are considering a parameterized curve, which is not the same as being a domain. In the latter case, you are simply describing a curve, while in the former, you are considering a domain.
For example, it's like asking, if domain of t = {1}, what is \frac {df}{dt}?
In the first case, $x$ and $y$ are $inputs$, and in the second, $outputs$.