Let $E$ be the set of rationals in the interval $A=[0,1]$, and let $F$ be the set of irrationals in $A$.
Then, $m^*(E)=0$ since $E$ is countable, and so, by the definition of Lebesgue measurable sets, $m^*(F)=1$, since $m^*(A)=1$.
That is,
$m^*(A)=m^*(A \cap E)+m^*(A \cap E^C) \implies 1=m^*(E)+m^*(F)$.
However, I find the result $m^*(F)=1$ rather surprising.
What is an example of a covering of open sets of $F$ with total length $1$? The obvious answer would be $\{(0,1)\}$, but how do I show that there does not exist a covering with a smaller length, e.g. of length $0$?
In other words, I'm looking for an alternative derivation of the result $m^*(F)=1$. One that is done more directly from the definition of $m^*$, i.e. involving a covering of open sets of the set $F$.
Take as an example the sets $I_n=(\frac{1}{n+1},\frac{1}{n})$
Let $\epsilon>0$
By definition of the outer measure there is a covering $\{I_n:n \in \Bbb{N}\}$ of $F$ such that $$\sum_nl(I_n)-\epsilon \leq m^*(F) \leq \sum_nl(I_n)$$
If $\sum_nl(I_n)<1$, then exists an interval $J$ such that $J \cap \bigcup_nI_n=\emptyset$
But density of irrationals contradicts the fact that $\{I_n:n \in \Bbb{N}\}$ is a covering of $F$