I'm trying to find the limit:
$$L= \lim_{n \to \infty} \left(\sum\limits_{j=0}^n {2n \choose j}(1+p)^j\right)^\frac{1}{2n}$$
We know that:
$$\left( \sum\limits_{j=0}^{2n} {2n \choose j}(1+p)^j\right)^\frac{1}{2n}=2+p$$
I suspect:
$$\lim_{n \to \infty}\left( \sum\limits_{j=n+1}^{2n} {2n \choose j}(1+p)^j\right)^\frac{1}{2n}=2+p$$ as well. So, I suspect $L<2+p$. Not sure how to proceed with it. Any numerical trick to find it for really large values of $n$?
I will assume that $p \geq 0$. Then noting the inequality
$$ \binom{2n}{n}(1+p)^n \leq \sum_{j=0}^{n} \binom{2n}{j}(1+p)^j \leq n \cdot \binom{2n}{n}(1+p)^n $$
and the limit $\lim_{n\to\infty} n^{1/n} = 1$, we deduce that
$$ L = \lim_{n\to\infty} \left[ \binom{2n}{n} (1+p)^n \right]^{\frac{1}{2n}} = 2\sqrt{1+p}. $$
AM-GM inequality guarantees that $L \leq 2+p$ and the equality holds if and only if $p = 0$.