At first, this question - when I asked it for my self - for me was straight forward: $$e^{i\pi}=-1 \implies \ln(-1)=i\pi$$ Yet again, at some time I also discovered that: $$e^{i\pi}=-1 \iff -e^{i\pi}=1 \implies \ln(-e^{i\pi})=\ln(1)=0$$ $$\implies \ln(-1)=-\ln(e^{i\pi})=-i\pi$$ From there I became confused. For a generalization one might see that $$xe^{i\pi}=-x \implies \ln(-x)=\ln(x)+i\pi$$ But also, if we replace $x$ with $-x$ $($the identical matter with $\ln(-1)$ above$)$ we would get $$\ln(-x)=\ln(x)-i\pi$$ For example: $$e^{i\pi}=-1 \implies 8e^{i\pi}=-8 \implies \ln(-8)=\ln(8)+i\pi$$ However $$e^{i\pi}=-1 \implies -8e^{i\pi}=8 \implies \ln(-8) + i\pi=\ln(8)$$ $$\iff \ln(-8)=\ln(8)-i\pi$$ So what is it $-i\pi$ or $i\pi$ or both or the whole argument is invalid because we can't use such property of the $\ln$ here: $$e^{\ln(xy)}=e^{\ln(x)+\ln(y)}=xy$$ $$\implies \ln(xy)=\ln(x)+\ln(y) \implies \ln(x^z)=z\ln(x)$$ But does this property apply here? $($i.e. can I say $\ln(e^{i\pi})=i\pi$?$)$
Please extinguish the fire of my curiosity on this issue.
Given a real number $x$, there is at most one number $y$ such that $x=e^y$. This number $y$, if it exists, we call $\ln x$.
The situation over the complex numbers is not so simple, because given a non-zero complex number $z$, there are an infinite number of complex numbers $y$ such that $z=e^y$. All these numbers differ by a multiple of $2\pi i$.
So there is no definition of $\ln$ over the non-zero complex numbers that satisfies the properties that we might expect, such as $\ln(zw)=\ln z+\ln w$.
We can rescue the situation somewhat by defining $\ln$ over a subset of the complex numbers, such as $\Bbb C-(-\infty,0]$. Still we don't have $\ln(zw)=\ln z+\ln w$ for all $w,z$ in this subset, but at least we get continuity and differentiability.
For more on this fascinating subject, look up Riemann surfaces.