Let $P(\mathbb{F})$ be the set of all polynomials of one variable over a field $\mathbb{F}$. It is known that such a set, with usual polynomials operations, is a Euclidean domain, that is, a domain that has the Euclidean division algorithm. So we have the following
Theorem. Let $\deg: P(\mathbb{F})\setminus 0 \to\mathbb{N}$ the degree function. Then $(P(\mathbb{F}), \deg)$ is a Euclidean domain, that is:
a) $P(\mathbb{F})$ is a domain;
b)For all $f,g\in P(\mathbb{F}), g\ne 0$, exist unique polynomials $t,r\in P(\mathbb{F})$ such that $$ f(x) = g(x)q(x) + r(x), \text{ with }\deg(r)<\deg(g) \text{ or }r = 0. $$
What I want to know: In such a domain, what is meant by a irreducible or prime polynomial? Moreover, if $p, m\in P(\mathbb{F})$ are such that $p\vert m$ and $p$ is irreducible (or prime) and $m$ is monic (coefficient of the higher degree term is $1$), why we have that $\deg\left(\dfrac mp\right)<\deg(m)$, that is, why $p$ can't have zero degree?
I'll talk about the definitions in general domains, and it should be clear how they apply to the polynomial rings you're interested in.
In general, in any domain, $R$, a non-unit element, $p$, is said to be prime if $p\mid ab$ implies $p\mid a$ or $p\mid b$. A non-unit element, $r$, is said to be irreducible if $r=ab$ implies that one of $a$ or $b$ is a unit.
All primes, $p$, are irreducible.
Proof: If $p=ab$, then $p \mid ab$, so $p\mid a$ or $p\mid b$, without loss of generality, we may assume $p\mid a$. Then $a=pv$ for some $v\in R$, and $p=pvb$. Since $R$ is a domain, we may cancel to get $1=vb$, so $b$ is a unit. Hence $p$ is irreducible.
On the other hand, it isn't always the case that irreducible elements are prime. This is however a necessary condition for a ring to be a unique factorization domain, and hence it is in fact true in every Euclidean domain. For a proof, see the answers here, one of which gives a direct proof from the Euclidean property.
To sum up the answer to your first question, in a Euclidean domain, an element is prime ($p\mid ab \implies p\mid a\text{ or } p\mid b$) if and only if it is irreducible ($s=ab \implies a$ or $b$ is a unit).
As for your second question, note that polynomials over a field with degree zero are units, and hence aren't considered irreducible. Thus if $p\mid m$, with $p$ prime/irreducible, then $\deg(m/p) = \deg(m) - \deg(p) < \deg m$. (I've assumed you meant $m$ rather than $f$ in the fraction in your question.)