What is meant by a polynomial that is "irreducible"? And a "prime" polynomial?

3k Views Asked by At

Let $P(\mathbb{F})$ be the set of all polynomials of one variable over a field $\mathbb{F}$. It is known that such a set, with usual polynomials operations, is a Euclidean domain, that is, a domain that has the Euclidean division algorithm. So we have the following

Theorem. Let $\deg: P(\mathbb{F})\setminus 0 \to\mathbb{N}$ the degree function. Then $(P(\mathbb{F}), \deg)$ is a Euclidean domain, that is:

a) $P(\mathbb{F})$ is a domain;

b)For all $f,g\in P(\mathbb{F}), g\ne 0$, exist unique polynomials $t,r\in P(\mathbb{F})$ such that $$ f(x) = g(x)q(x) + r(x), \text{ with }\deg(r)<\deg(g) \text{ or }r = 0. $$

What I want to know: In such a domain, what is meant by a irreducible or prime polynomial? Moreover, if $p, m\in P(\mathbb{F})$ are such that $p\vert m$ and $p$ is irreducible (or prime) and $m$ is monic (coefficient of the higher degree term is $1$), why we have that $\deg\left(\dfrac mp\right)<\deg(m)$, that is, why $p$ can't have zero degree?

3

There are 3 best solutions below

10
On BEST ANSWER

I'll talk about the definitions in general domains, and it should be clear how they apply to the polynomial rings you're interested in.

In general, in any domain, $R$, a non-unit element, $p$, is said to be prime if $p\mid ab$ implies $p\mid a$ or $p\mid b$. A non-unit element, $r$, is said to be irreducible if $r=ab$ implies that one of $a$ or $b$ is a unit.

All primes, $p$, are irreducible.

Proof: If $p=ab$, then $p \mid ab$, so $p\mid a$ or $p\mid b$, without loss of generality, we may assume $p\mid a$. Then $a=pv$ for some $v\in R$, and $p=pvb$. Since $R$ is a domain, we may cancel to get $1=vb$, so $b$ is a unit. Hence $p$ is irreducible.

On the other hand, it isn't always the case that irreducible elements are prime. This is however a necessary condition for a ring to be a unique factorization domain, and hence it is in fact true in every Euclidean domain. For a proof, see the answers here, one of which gives a direct proof from the Euclidean property.

To sum up the answer to your first question, in a Euclidean domain, an element is prime ($p\mid ab \implies p\mid a\text{ or } p\mid b$) if and only if it is irreducible ($s=ab \implies a$ or $b$ is a unit).

As for your second question, note that polynomials over a field with degree zero are units, and hence aren't considered irreducible. Thus if $p\mid m$, with $p$ prime/irreducible, then $\deg(m/p) = \deg(m) - \deg(p) < \deg m$. (I've assumed you meant $m$ rather than $f$ in the fraction in your question.)

1
On

$\underline {\text{Irreducible polynomial}} \text{: A non-constant polynomial that can't be factored within a given field or ring}$

so in the integers: $x^2+1$ is irreducible but $x^2-1$ isn't, this is because the latter factors as $(x+1)\cdot (x-1)$ both of which have coefficients that are integer.

4
On

In $P(\mathbb{F})$, an irreducible polynomial $f$ is a a polynomial OF POSITIVE DEGREE that cannot be written as the product of two polynomials of smaller degree. This is the same as being prime (a prime in a ring is an element $p$ such that if $p | ab$ then $p | a$ or $p | b$) and this is a consequence of $P(\mathbb{F})$ being a unique factorization domain, (because it is a Euclidean domain). The note that Hungerford's Abstract Algebra gives on this matter is:

You could just as well all such a polynomial "prime," but "irreducible" is the customary term with polynomials.

As for your next question, I think you are then asking why an irreducible polynomial cannot be constant since you are assuming that $p$ is irreducible, then asking why it cannot be constant. Irreducible polynomials are nonconstant by definition. The reason is that in $P(\mathbb{F})$, ever constant polynomial (except $0$) is a unit, they have inverses since $\mathbb{F}$ is a field. So, when you talk about a polynomial being irreducible or prime, one runs into the same sort of reason that $1$ is not prime, because the notion of irreducibility is only a useful concept when you ignore the constants since you can always multiple or divide by a constant and nothing really changes much.

I am not sure what exactly is going on with $f$ and $m$, but I hoped I answered your questions.