Let $\vec a,\vec b,\vec c$ and $\vec d$ be four unit vectors such that $(\vec a \times \vec b).(\vec c \times \vec d)=1$ and $\vec a . \vec c = \frac {1} {2}$. Then which of the following is true$?$
$(a)$ $\vec a,\vec b,\vec c$ are non-coplanar$.$
$(b)$ $\vec b,\vec c,\vec d$ are non-coplanar$.$
$(c)$ $\vec b,\vec d$ are non-parallel$.$
$(d)$ $\vec a,\vec d$ are parallel and $\vec b,\vec c$ are parallel$.$
I tried to solve it by simplifying $(\vec a \times \vec b).(\vec c \times \vec d)=1$ which yields $(\vec a . \vec c)(\vec b . \vec d)-(\vec b . \vec c)(\vec a . \vec d)=1.$ Putting the value of $\vec a.\vec c$ we have $\frac {1} {2}(\vec b . \vec d)-(\vec b . \vec c)(\vec a . \vec d)=1.$
Clearly $(d)$ is not correct.Because if the angle between $\vec b$ and $\vec d$ is taken to be $\theta$ therefore if $(d)$ holds then we would have $\cos \theta = 4$ which is absurd.
Now I also observe that since all the vectors are unit modulus so the maximum value of $(\vec a \times \vec b).(\vec c \times \vec d)$ is $1$ and it has been attained iff $|\vec a \times \vec b|=1$ and $|\vec c \times \vec d|=1$. So from these three conditions we have $\vec a$ is perpendicular to $ \vec b$, $\vec c$ is perpendicular to $\vec d$ and $(\vec a \times \vec b)$ is parallel to $(\vec c \times \vec d)$. Now it may so happen all the vectors are coplanar because suppose $\vec a$ is in the positive $x$-direction,$\vec b$ is in the positive $y$-direction.Now if I make rotation of the coordinate axes through an angle $60^o$ then if I take $\vec c$ and $\vec d$ along the new $x$ and $y$ direction respectively then the given condition holds. So I think $(a)$ and $(c)$ are in general false. Now if $\vec b$ and $\vec d$ are parallel then since $\vec c$ is perpendicular to $\vec d$ and since $\vec a$ is perpendicular to $\vec b$ so we would have either $\vec a$ is perpendicular to $\vec c$ or $\vec a$ is parallel to $\vec c$.Neither of them holds since $\vec a . \vec c=\frac {1} {2}$ and $\vec a$ and $\vec c$ are unit vectors. So $\vec b$ and $\vec d$ are non-parallel. Thus $(c)$ is the only correct option.
Is the above reasoning correct at all? Please verify it.
Thank you in advance.
$(\vec{a} \times \vec{b}) \cdot (\vec{c} \times \vec{d}) = 1 \implies ||\vec{a} \times \vec{b}|| \; ||\vec{c} \times \vec{d}|| \; \cos{\phi} = 1 \implies ab \; |\sin{\alpha}| \; cd\; |\sin{\beta}| \; \cos{\phi} = 1 \implies |\sin{\alpha}| \; |\sin{\beta}| \; \cos{\phi} = 1$. ($\alpha = $ angle between $\vec{a}$ and $\vec{b}$, $\beta = $ angle between $\vec{c}$ and $\vec{d}$, $\phi = $ angle between $\vec{a} \times \vec{b}$ and $\vec{c} \times \vec{d}$ and $a,b,c,d = $ magnitudes of respective vectors = $1$ since they are all unit vectors).
This is possible iff $|\sin{\alpha}| = |\sin{\beta}| = \cos{\phi} = 1$.
$(\cos{\phi} = 1 \implies \phi = 0)$ and $(||\vec{a} \times \vec{b}|| = ||\vec{c} \times \vec{d}|| = 1)$ together imply that $\vec{a} \times \vec{b} = \vec{c} \times \vec{d}$.
Also, $\vec{a}$, $\vec{b}$ lie in a plane perpendicular to $\vec{a} \times \vec{b}$ and $\vec{c}$, $\vec{d}$ lie in a plane perpendicular to $\vec{c} \times \vec{d}$. Since the two cross products produce the same vector, all of $\vec{a}, \vec{b}, \vec{c}, \vec{d}$ must be co-planar.
Since $|\sin{\alpha}| = 1 = |\sin{\beta}|$, it can be concluded that $\vec{a} \perp \vec{b}$ and $\vec{c} \perp \vec{d}$.
$\vec{a} \cdot \vec{c} = 0.5 \implies$ angle between $\vec{a}$ and $\vec{c}$ is 60 degress (since $a = c = 1$).
With all this information, draw a picture of all 4 vectors on a plane. (We have already concluded that they are all co-planar). It's not hard to see that choice (c) is the only correct answer.