According to wikipedia (link), Morgan's Law is:
$$¬ (P \wedge Q) \Rightarrow (¬P) \vee (¬Q)$$
But if you scroll down to 8.2.2 on this page (link), it says that Morgan's Law works as follow:
$$¬ (P \wedge Q) \Rightarrow ¬P \vee Q$$
I believe wikipedia but I have had some excercices where they use Morgan's Law like the other website. Which method is correct?

DeMorgan's Law is really DeMorgan's Laws:
$$\lnot(P \land Q) \equiv \lnot P \lor \lnot Q\tag{1}$$
$$\lnot (P \lor Q) \equiv \lnot P \land \lnot Q\tag{2}$$
Note that in both $(1)$ and $(2)$, the left-hand side and right-hand side are logically equivalent, meaning each side of the equivalence implies the other.
So, the "other website" is most certainly incorrect. It's always good to confirm or challenge what you read on the internet!