What is the correct version of this statement about congruences in universal algebra?

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On page 1 of the article Congruence classes in regular varieties (Behlolavek & Chajda) is the the following statement:

Let $\mathcal{A} = (A,F)$ denote an algebra. Then a non-empty subset $C \subseteq A$ is a class of a congruence relation on $\mathcal{A}$ if and only if for every unary polynomial $\tau$ for $\mathcal{A}$, we have: $$\tau(C) \cap C = \emptyset \mbox{ or } \tau(C) \subseteq C.$$

This doesn't seem to be true. For example, consider the cross-shaped set $C=(\mathbb{R} \times \{0\}) \cup (\{0\} \times \mathbb{R})$ viewed as a subset of $\mathbb{R}^2$, which is viewed as a vector space over the real line. The unary polynomials $\tau$ of $\mathbb{R}^2$ are of the form $\tau(x)=ax,$ so we always have $\tau(C) \subseteq C$. But $C$ is not the class of a congruence relation on $\mathbb{R}^2$.

Question. Does anyone know what the correct version of this statement is?

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The statement is correct. "Polynomials" are allowed to refer to individual elements of your algebra as constants, so the unary polynomials for a vector space are not just $ax$ for $a$ a scalar but also $ax+v$ where $a$ is a scalar and $v$ is an element of the vector space. Your example $C$ does not satisfy $\tau(C)\cap C=\emptyset$ or $\tau(C)\subseteq C$ for all polynomials $\tau$ of this form.