I know that the probability mass function of the binomial distribution is
$f(k,n,p) = \Pr(k;n,p) = \Pr(X = k) = {n\choose k}p^k(1-p)^{n-k}$
This functions returns the probability of getting exactly k successes within n trials, with p being the probability of success for each trial.
The cumulative function is
$F(k;n,p) = \Pr(X \le k) = \sum_{i=0}^{\lfloor k \rfloor} {n\choose i}p^i(1-p)^{n-i}$
where $\displaystyle \scriptstyle \lfloor k\rfloor \,$ is the "floor" under k, i.e. the greatest integer less than or equal to k. But this cumulative function gives, as I understood, the probability of having the number of successes between 0 and k.
How to get a cumulative function which gives me, at least one success, that is, the probability of having the number of successes between 1 and n.
For example, someone throws an even dice. After throwing 1000 times, what's the probability of getting at least once, the number 6?
Hint
Solution