For a variable $x$, whose mean is given by $\overline{x}$, what is:
$\frac{\partial}{\partial x} \frac{x}{\overline{x}}$?
I think it is $1/x$ but cannot prove it.
For a variable $x$, whose mean is given by $\overline{x}$, what is:
$\frac{\partial}{\partial x} \frac{x}{\overline{x}}$?
I think it is $1/x$ but cannot prove it.
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The mean of a variable x is independent of x. In other words, $\bar{x}$ is a constant with respect to x.
The derivative of a variable with respect to itself is 1. In other words, $\frac{\partial}{\partial x}x=1$.
Putting those together:
$$\frac{\partial}{\partial x}\frac{x}{\bar{x}} = \frac{1}{\bar{x}}\frac{\partial}{\partial x}x = \frac{1}{\bar{x}}$$