I'm currently trying to make sense of the Laplace transform, but I'm a bit stumped by the $e^{-st}$ part of the transform.
I understand Euler's formula $e^{it} = \cos(t)+i\sin(t)$, but I don't understand why in the Laplace transform it is a whole complex number in the exponent?
I assume $e^{st}$ is not equal to $\cos(t) + i\sin(t)$.
Any help would be appreciated
Laplace transform $F$ of a function $f$ is given by the formula $$F(s) = \int_0^\infty f(t)e^{-st}\,dt. \tag{1}$$ First, let's discuss what $t$ is. It's a dummy variable used for integration, it takes value in $[0,\infty)$. It often represents time in applications. Note that $t$ would disappear in a closed-formula for $F$ after integration takes place, but $s$ will remain and therefore the above integral defines a function in variable $s$ (when it converges). So, $s$ is a complex variable, not a fixed number.
The imaginary unit $i$, on the other hand, is a fixed complex number, so comparing $s$ and $i$ in this context is like apples and oranges. For example, if we used $it$ instead of $-st$, if integral $$\int_0^\infty f(t)e^{it}\,dt\tag{2}$$ converges, the result is just another complex number, not a function of a complex variable. (Well, technically, any constant can be interpreted as a function, but that wouldn't be interesting here.)
So, to recapitulate, the expression $e^{-st}$ in this context has two parameters, $s$ a complex one, and $t$ non-negative real, so $(s,t)\mapsto e^{-st}$ is a function with domain $\mathbb C\times [0,\infty)$. The expression $e^{it}$ has only one parameter $t$, while $i$ is a constant, so $t\mapsto e^{it}$ is a function with domain $[0,\infty)$.